From: Mac Norton <mnorton@cavern.uark.edu>
Date: Sun, 24 Aug 1997 14:57:30 +0800
To: Jim Choate <ravage@ssz.com>
Subject: Re: Reproductive Rights and State Benefits (fwd)
In-Reply-To: <199708240628.BAA28727@einstein.ssz.com>
Message-ID: <Pine.SOL.3.96.970824014238.1898H-100000@cavern.uark.edu>
MIME-Version: 1.0
Content-Type: text/plain



On Sun, 24 Aug 1997, Jim Choate wrote:

> -  Where in the 14th does it mention the Bill of Rights or apply them
>    to the states in such a manner that is not done in the original
>    Constitution?

Nowhere. The SCt just said it did.
> 
> -  Why does the last section of the last item prior to my quote of the
>    14th not apply said Bill of Rights since it is clearly a part of the
>    Constitution and worded much stronger than the 14th?
> 
Because it applies to "this constitution" which addresses, in 1A
for example, only what Congress cannot do.  Which prety much answers
the rest of your questions except the last one.
[snip to last]

> -  And finaly, why should we as citizens accept the rulings of the SCt
>    as the final word since we and not the federal government are the
>    ones granting the power to govern? Add to this that Constitutionaly
>    the role of the SCt is to limit Congress and not the citizenry.

Because we accept the Constitution, and the SCt's role thereunder,
as interpreted by none other than the SCt itself, ironically;
otherwise, and I admit that there is an otherwise, this question 
is beyond the scope of Con Law 701:)
MacN