1997-09-20 - Re: directed speech free? request for opinions.

Header Data

From: Mark Hedges <hedges@sirius.infonex.com>
To: Lee Tien <tien@well.com>
Message Hash: 91e669e95e7c24762123d88ea6e3761295d1c3a21124f7040c1dc02833f98686
Message ID: <Pine.SOL.3.96.970920104223.4741C-100000@sirius.infonex.com>
Reply To: <v03007803b0488b2d954c@[163.176.132.90]>
UTC Datetime: 1997-09-20 17:50:49 UTC
Raw Date: Sun, 21 Sep 1997 01:50:49 +0800

Raw message

From: Mark Hedges <hedges@sirius.infonex.com>
Date: Sun, 21 Sep 1997 01:50:49 +0800
To: Lee Tien <tien@well.com>
Subject: Re: directed speech free? request for opinions.
In-Reply-To: <v03007803b0488b2d954c@[163.176.132.90]>
Message-ID: <Pine.SOL.3.96.970920104223.4741C-100000@sirius.infonex.com>
MIME-Version: 1.0
Content-Type: text/plain




I don't have the law code available. I was told by an attorney that the
particular passage says this is the case. I would like to challenge this
passage. I will get back with the particular code section and text.

Mark Hedges


On Fri, 19 Sep 1997, Lee Tien wrote:

>At 2:16 AM -0800 9/19/97, Mark Hedges wrote:
>>I have seen California law code which seems to indicate that speech
>>directed at an individual is not covered under the first amendment.
>>
>>If you have any thoughts on the matter, please send opinions (not legal
>>advice, of course, if you are a lawyer). Also, if you know of any speech
>>rights scholars or lawyers willing to answer a few related questions for
>>free, I would appreciate the pointer.
>
>I'm confused.  What in California law makes you think that the First
>Amendment doesn't apply unless you speak to more than one person?  Assuming
>that's what you mean by "speech directed at an individual."
>
>Lee
>
>
>






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